Aromatase levels on cycle?

way to go buddy! this is an incredibly complicated subject with no easy answers. aromatase enzyme is a member of the cyp P450 familyu specifially the CYP P19 enzyme. it is found, in adipose tissue, actually almost everywhere. It can be induced by numerous chemicals including Testosterone specifically in the brain, and inhibited directly and indirectly by numerous other chemicals.
I have not been able to find any evidence of induction or inhibition of aromatase by testosterone other than inthe brain.

This looks like one for dr. frankenstein!

jb

At least that's a start! Thanks jb.

What made me curious about this was that I was question how much test actually stays test when non-aromatizing compounds are used. Say a person used 100mgs of test with 1gram of tren. Would all of the test aromatize to estrogen? What would happen when the test dose increases a bit. For example, would estrogen levels be the same with 1g of test as they are with 500mgs of Tren And 500mgs of test?

LOL as you can see, my mind was just wondering around...

estrogen levels due to aromatase are dose related with exo test, the more test the more estrogen. If you inject 100mg of test it aromatizes at a rate that is highly variable due to differnt levels of aromatase in different individuals, so the answer is no it will not all be aromatized.

this is a classic graph from medibolics that demonstrates blood levels of test after a 140mg injection of test enanthate.

jb

jb

Yes, but does the body keep in perfect ratio? X test always leads to a certain amount of aromatization within an individual?

Furthermore, I would suspect adding in additional non-aromatizing androgens increases the rate at which the test is also aromatized.

why do you think that? btw, there is a body of evidence that suggest the aromatization of test to estrogen represents a large component of the hpta suppression, hence you would expect that the use of non-aromatizable AA's would lead to less suppression.

oh, and good question.

jb

I suspect that because overall androgen levels are higher.

For example:
X amount of test will aromatize to Y amount of estrogen
If one were to add in an additional Z amount of non-aromatizing steroids, I'd suspect that the aromatization of test to estrogen might lead to 1.5 * Y.

Again, this is simply due to the overall levels of androgen within the body. Since androgen levels are higher, I suspect aromatization rates may be higher.

But this is just me throwing ideas around, not actual science. I don't have shit, as you can see, to support what I'm writing.